When is a Loophole Contempt?

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Discipulus

Member
22 October 2020
2
0
1
We were having a discussion and one of the group posed a situation that ultimately confused us all.

In the scenario:

One spouse had a rare collection valued at say $100,000.00

- Court orders made include a clause that if any part of the collection valued at more than $10,000.00 is sold then advanced notice of the sale and 50% of the proceeds of the sale must be shared.
- The collection is "sold" and a story reporting its sale appears in the genre's journals.
- No advanced notice of the sale is made nor are any of the proceeds of the sale shared.
- It becomes known that the sale is proceeding without notice. The spouse is selling a portion of the full collection valued at $9,000.00 per month - till the full collection has been sold.

Is this a valid loophole?
Is the spouse in contempt?

In trying to be smart we managed to simply confuse ourselves with what we believe was "robust argument". Several of us changed our opinion including one person changing several times. In the end we moved on but my curiosity continues.

PS While not pertinent to the conversation, one point that we considered was if the collection/orders were one or even several orders of magnitude different. Would this have a bearing on a decision?

Thanks for your experience.
 

Discipulus

Member
22 October 2020
2
0
1
If the moderator is happy, I discovered the Student threat and this might be better there as the ahole thing happened at school and our teacher was honest enough to say he didn't know the answer.