My ex-husband has started putting the following type of statements in our email correspondence regarding visitation with our son. We have family court orders regarding his access but they are not very specific so we always have to arrange dates, flight times etc as he lives interstate -
"In the absence of your response indicating otherwise within 14 days, you will have been deemed to be in agreement with the above proposed dates and I will commence to make travel arrangements forthwith."
"In the absence of your response indicating otherwise within 14 days, you will have been deemed to be in agreement with the above changeover times and other members of the travelling party will be informed accordingly."
My question is, do these statements have any legal standing under family law or Australian law generally? Am I legally obliged to reply within his set time-frame?
Thanks
"In the absence of your response indicating otherwise within 14 days, you will have been deemed to be in agreement with the above proposed dates and I will commence to make travel arrangements forthwith."
"In the absence of your response indicating otherwise within 14 days, you will have been deemed to be in agreement with the above changeover times and other members of the travelling party will be informed accordingly."
My question is, do these statements have any legal standing under family law or Australian law generally? Am I legally obliged to reply within his set time-frame?
Thanks