This question relates to Rules of Evidence and not the underlying case. In a family law matter, I received a letter from my ex's lawyer marked "without prejudice" in which they demanded payment of a $100k bond or they would deny me access to the child in violation of existing consent orders. I wish to include this letter in my initiating application to the Family Court. Does such a letter have "without prejudice" protection given it: (A) is not proferred as part of a genuine negotiation to resolve a dispute? (B) clearly indicates an intention by the other party to commit a crime if I do not accede to their demand?