After the divorce, my daughter and I met with my ex-wife. We both agreed to give to our daughter the family house. I transferred the house on our daughter's name. After about six months, she text messaged me that she wants her share in property settlement. I told her that we had a verbal agreement, she text messaged me back that she remembered that, but she wants her share. Is the text message admissible in family court, and can I use it as evidence that we had a verbal agreement?