Yes, 'matrimonial home' isn't a defined term in the FLA, but like Atticus said, it doesn't really need to be defined for the purposes of property settlement, anyway. In terms of a property settlement, the house that a married couple owned and lived in, is no different to the house that a de facto couple owned and lived in, is no different to the investment property that a de facto or married couple owned and rented out through a property agency - all are treated the same way in a property settlement in that they all form part of the shared asset pool.
Thanks, I realise they are all part of the asset pool. But this is about communication between myself and their the lawyer - I've received a letter from my ex-partner's (de facto) lawyer that used the term "
matrimonial home" for an
investment property jointly owned by me and my ex de facto. I'm particularly concerned that the lawyer has used this terminology , possibly incorrectly, when it might not relate to my specific circumstance of a de facto, jointly owned, investment property. I just want to be able to pull them up on it and demonstrate the lawyers incompetence further (it's there in spades for other issues).
My understanding is that
matrimonial in the FLA is actually defined as "
marriage" -
FAMILY LAW ACT 1975 - SECT 71 Interpretation
I can't see anything in the act that states the
de facto also means
matrimonial, although I know it's treated the same in my case.
And "
home" implies to me the Principal (or secondary) Place of Residence, not a property used for investment purposes (although I know this is part of the asset pool).
Whilst I know the court will deal with the investment property no differently than a jointly held PPR, I want to ensure their lawyer is using the appropriate terminology. In many jurisdictions overseas, "matrimonial home" means the PPR of a "married" couple.
I'm not really concerned about the treatment in the act, I'm concerned with the use of the terms in the letter from the lawyer so I can adjust my correspondence accordingly.