Variation to consent orders - threshold for change?

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Keeks

Well-Known Member
28 February 2019
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Just after some thoughts and advice on seeking variation to consent orders.

Orders were signed by consent late last year, following several years of disagreement about where children would go to school.

Dad conceded to ex’s choice of private school, with a notation that school fees and associated costs were solely her responsibility. Her desire that the kids would go to this particular school has been consistently (and at times, scarily) strong over the past four years, having her preference noted in the family report, in a CSA change of assessment (reason 3, CSA rejected her request) and it was top of her priorities during a year of negotiating between lawyers. We have coped quite a bit of abuse (including property damage) and some sporadic parental alienation over the years as she pushed to get her way on this matter. In the end we decided the only way to end the craziness was to agree.

Now, less than six months later, she has done a complete backflip and wants to withdraw the children and send them to a state school. She claims the school isn’t doing the job they promised so she’s not getting a return on her financial investment, and the children will be better off in the cheaper state system.

Nothing has changed since the orders were signed (other than she may have just realised the full cost of her commitment over the coming years and is freaking out). There was no information that was withheld or not available to the court and parties at the time.

She has dropped the “see you back in court” line if Dad doesn’t agree to her request for change. Dad is open to negotiation but not likely to agree entirely with the timeline or school choice of what she’s proposing, with very sound reasons, including the trauma of pulling a child out of a familiar school where that child doesn’t cope with change particularly well.

I’m hoping that between them, Dad and ex should be able come up with a solution which is somewhere between what he wants and what she wants (particularly if she has representation – much easier to negotiate with a professional), but I’m just wondering how likely it is that she could get the case back in front of a judge if they don’t agree?

If she claims she can’t afford the fees (keeping in mind nothing has changed since the orders were signed, ie, she is still in the same employment, still has the same assets etc), would a judge consider that reason enough to hear the case? Is there an expectation (Rice V Asplund-style) that she should have been aware of the financial costs at the time of signing the order, such that the current orders stand and she has to find the money from somewhere? I feel like our law matter is vanilla compared to many other families, and a judge might get very annoyed that we're clogging up the system with such a trivial thing.

If she goes down that path and her lawyer is unable to convince her it's the wrong one, I understand that we’d have to go through the whole drama again – mediation, certificate 60i, affadavits etc – and that would just be a big bag of crap, especially now that we thought we were in the clear and were able to enjoy blended family life with the certainty of the orders.

Any advice or experience with Rice V Asplund arguments and meeting the change threshold to re-open a case greatly appreciated.
 

Atticus

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6 February 2019
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Any advice or experience with Rice V Asplund arguments and meeting the change threshold to re-open a case greatly appreciated.
Very basically, the Rice & Asplund precedent *may* be accepted if an applicant can satisfy the 'material change' threshold, ie, something has occurred since the making of the order (making it impractical )that could not have reasonably been foreseen at the time orders were made.... From what you have described, there has not been any material change
 
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Atticus

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6 February 2019
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Orders were signed by consent late last year, following several years of disagreement about where children would go to school.
Just another thought on this.

Do your consent orders SPECIFICALLY make mention of the school, & if so, does it also say anything about needing the other parents written consent to change schools, limitations or conditions to changing schools?.... Is it a primary or secondary school or combined?

My thinking is that if the orders are more or less silent on actually changing schools, or that xxxx MUST attend xxxxx school, then it may just come under the normal umbrella of parental responsibility, ie, the other parent is consulted prior to any major or long term decisions such as a change of school? .... I'm guessing she would have had it written in stone if it was such a hot issue for her, but worth asking..
 

Keeks

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28 February 2019
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Thanks for the follow-up and comments @Atticus

Wording is specific - ie, "Parents sign all necessary documents and do all necessary things to ensure the children be enrolled and attend XX school for their secondary school education".

There are three children in relation to this order.

We discharged our lawyer in Jan thinking the matter was over, and I'm not too keen on re-engaging just when we're getting back on our feet $-wise.

I think we'd be okay self-representing if all it meant was sending a few letters backwards and forwards with her lawyer (I doubt she will self-rep), but knowledge is power and we don't want to be bamboozled by whatever bluff they might throw at us. I'd love to confidently write that as there has been no material change since the orders were signed, the only way she can affect a change in schools is if she is willing to negotiate a compromise with Dad.

Thanks again Atticus!
 

Atticus

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6 February 2019
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Wording is specific
Thought as much... worth a shot.
I'd love to confidently write that as there has been no material change since the orders were signed, the only way she can affect a change in schools is if she is willing to negotiate a compromise with Dad.
Sounds like a reasonable response... I would word it 'no significant or material change'
I understand that we’d have to go through the whole drama again – mediation, certificate 60i, affadavits etc
As the orders are less than 12 months old (if I read it right), Section 60I (9)(c)(ii) of the family law act gives an exemption from the need to file a 60I >>> a Part VII order has been made in relation to that issue within the period of 12 months before the application is made;

She would be foolish to not take it to mediation first though..... I think you may have a good case for costs as well given the length she went to (& cost to you) of having this specifically included in orders, & that you had/have every right to confidence that these would be orders that you can rely on, not only for yourselves, but kids as well
 
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Keeks

Well-Known Member
28 February 2019
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Thanks again @Atticus, I had no idea about the 12-month rule. The mediation certificate was issued 18 months ago, but orders signed 6 months ago.

I'm not sure costs would be a thing this time around if we're unlikely to engage a solicitor and just go it ourselves. In reality, we still have to live with this person in our lives so we're keen to get to a resolution out of court that's in the best interests of the kids but one that we're not bullied into, which is historically how things have worked in the past.

We're just sitting tight at the moment waiting for the next shot across the bow, but will likely come back for more advice should things progress.
 

sammy01

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27 September 2015
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what are you hoping to achieve? See my thinking is this is not a fight worth having...
If i was responding to your application... My response would be that IF the applicant (you) is that keen to keep the private schooling then YOU can contribute to the costs. So the ex will claim unexpected related expenses.

Now there is another element here that is outside family law. There is a contract between HER and the school. The school isn't gonna compel her to continue paying because of your family orders. So if she chooses to remove the kids from the school that is her call as far as the contract with her and the school goes.
 

Keeks

Well-Known Member
28 February 2019
28
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124
Thanks for the response @sammy01. I was thinking we'd actually be the respondent rather than the applicant this time.

If she unilaterally enrols them in a different school without first getting Dad to agree to a new set of orders, or at least a parenting plan, she would be in contravention of the orders. Dad doesn't fully agree with the new school she has proposed or the timeline of removing the eldest, so if she's not willing to bend on those choices, she would need to return the matter to court - as the applicant this time around.

We are happy enough with the status quo - we certainly went through enough argy bargy to even get the orders. Even though there are parts which weren't Dad's preference (as, of course, would be the main feature of all negotiations), we are all in a rhythm of life now, it's workable and the kids are thriving. The orders reflect what the family report recommended.

The orders also include the notation that the parents have agreed the mother is solely responsible for the fees, so I can't see how she could now claim unexpected expenses since she was fully aware of the school fees when the orders were signed. We did think she might go down the "if you want them to stay, then you pay" path, but surely no judge would entertain such a backflip when she fought so hard in the first place. She agreed to pay all the fees to support her choice of schooling quite early on in negotiations.

What scares me about this is that I thought we were home and hosed with all the legal business and the orders are the orders. Does it ever end!!?