Question in regards to paying a deposit for a float. They have taken a $2000 deposit, but I am unable to now go through with sale due to personal reasons, and have asked for a deposit refund. Their reply was that he thinks he can keep the deposit with no sale going ahead. All that was ever sent was a tax invoice with amounts of deposit and remainder of payment, no contract has been signed and I had verbally asked for one and said he just sends out invoice. Am I entitled to a refund?
No Contract Signed - Am I Entitled to a Refund?
- Thread starter Floatbuyer
- Start date
It's not a refund situation.
Refunds are one of the options in a consumer transaction
when the product is in some respect deficient.
That's not what's happening here.
What you are doing is trying to get out of a contract you have entered into.
I'd be thinking that the issuing of a Tax Invoice suggests that there was a deal done,
even if nothing was written down.
You may find it helpful to contact the Fair Trading/ Consumer Affairs department
in your state and see what they say.
Refunds are one of the options in a consumer transaction
when the product is in some respect deficient.
That's not what's happening here.
What you are doing is trying to get out of a contract you have entered into.
I'd be thinking that the issuing of a Tax Invoice suggests that there was a deal done,
even if nothing was written down.
You may find it helpful to contact the Fair Trading/ Consumer Affairs department
in your state and see what they say.
I agree with Tim W's comments
A legally binding contract can be made in writing or verbally, though with verbal contracts it can be difficult to show what exactly was agreed if a dispute arises. The fact you transferred $2K in accordance with the tax invoice suggests there was an agreement in place even absent a written contract
Simply because a transaction no longer suits a consumer (for example due to a change in personal circumstances, finding a cheaper alternative, simply changing their mind, or whatever) does not entitle a consumer to a refund (or repair or replacement). In order to trigger consumer protections, there needs to be a problem with the actual good or service, rather than simply "personal reasons" on the part of the consumer
A legally binding contract can be made in writing or verbally, though with verbal contracts it can be difficult to show what exactly was agreed if a dispute arises. The fact you transferred $2K in accordance with the tax invoice suggests there was an agreement in place even absent a written contract
Simply because a transaction no longer suits a consumer (for example due to a change in personal circumstances, finding a cheaper alternative, simply changing their mind, or whatever) does not entitle a consumer to a refund (or repair or replacement). In order to trigger consumer protections, there needs to be a problem with the actual good or service, rather than simply "personal reasons" on the part of the consumer
Similar threads
