Basically, my understanding is that a small business (<15 employees) can rid themselves of a worker for any reason, completely fabricated or otherwise, (barring blatant discrimination or serious misconduct), with any protocol whatsoever before 1 year of employment period is up, and the worker has no rights to stop this.
Is this correct?
Furthermore, if a worker is given notice of dismissal one day before 1 year of work, they will more than likely end up working more than a year, but this means didly-squat as far as rights go. Why should the period of employment not take into account work performed during the notice period when the actual dismissal is not deemed to have taken place until the last day of work is performed?
Is this correct?
Furthermore, if a worker is given notice of dismissal one day before 1 year of work, they will more than likely end up working more than a year, but this means didly-squat as far as rights go. Why should the period of employment not take into account work performed during the notice period when the actual dismissal is not deemed to have taken place until the last day of work is performed?