A friend is currently looking to sell their house which they bought together with her ex partner (not married). About a year ago he walked out without warning, left the country and she had no contact with him for approximately 3 months. From that and subsequent conversations it was pretty clear that the relationship was over. They had bought the house together a year earlier, and both continued to pay the mortgage.
Fast forward to today, he is still abroad (stuck at the moment, but he works abroad anyway) and they are looking to move on, ideally sell the house or he buy her out. However, he is claiming that he is owed mortgage payments for the last 12 months due to the fact he was not living there - something that was not demanded, and as mentioned, he works abroad and so away for long periods even before the separation. He is insisting that any offer, or split of the sale, is less 12 months of mortgage payments.
Now, she is likely to be forced to go to a solicitor here but can someone tell me if this is right? Can someone claim the same equity in a house while not having paid the mortgage for that time?
Fast forward to today, he is still abroad (stuck at the moment, but he works abroad anyway) and they are looking to move on, ideally sell the house or he buy her out. However, he is claiming that he is owed mortgage payments for the last 12 months due to the fact he was not living there - something that was not demanded, and as mentioned, he works abroad and so away for long periods even before the separation. He is insisting that any offer, or split of the sale, is less 12 months of mortgage payments.
Now, she is likely to be forced to go to a solicitor here but can someone tell me if this is right? Can someone claim the same equity in a house while not having paid the mortgage for that time?