hi. I understand the concept of doli incapax. I also understand the concept of statute of limitations. If a crime is commited by a person between ages 10 and 14....and assume the crime is commited some 25 to 30 years ago... is it not virtually impossible to prosecute given the time that has passed and versions of events?
Also, if the other victim of the alleged crime is also between 10 and 14...how does the law (nowdays some 25 to 30 years later).. determine the correct version of events? Does the law automatically side with the complainant in such instances?.
For the sake of this example, assume the offence is a significant fight after school for which injuries occured.
thanks
geoff
Also, if the other victim of the alleged crime is also between 10 and 14...how does the law (nowdays some 25 to 30 years later).. determine the correct version of events? Does the law automatically side with the complainant in such instances?.
For the sake of this example, assume the offence is a significant fight after school for which injuries occured.
thanks
geoff