I was asked to complete a large job at a residence occupied (as part of a salary package) by the property owner's employee (a store manager), and under instruction from the owner's son (also an employee and former resident of the home). The owner is now disputing payment as I did not have his direct authorisation. I have previously, on several occasions, completed work for another branch of the owner's enterprise, via a manager's request.
Could you possibly advise where I stand on this issue under employment law?
Thanks
Could you possibly advise where I stand on this issue under employment law?
Thanks