Hi guys
My wife and I separated 7 months ago after 20 year relationship (married for 13)
We had 3 children, two are now over 18 and one is 10 years old. Parenting arrangements are amicable so no need to have a Parenting plan involved at this stage.
We have both received some independent legal advice and the factors to determine a "fair & equitable" outcome are quite vague regarding non-financial contributions.
We have agreed in principal to a financial settlement that both parties feel is fair. My question is should we be using Consent Orders or a BFA to legalise the agreement?
We have agreed on a split of 60/40 (in her favour) but I worry the court may decide that she is entitled to more and we will have to use a BFA anyway. The asset allocation has been done in a way that helps her and our child (eg - she keeps family home and I pay out her debt, I keep most of my super). Do they sweat on the actual percentage or are they more concerned with an asset allocation that suits both parties?
If a consent order is rejected is the process to appease the registrar fairly straight forward and simply resubmit the application?
Any thoughts much appreciated!!
My wife and I separated 7 months ago after 20 year relationship (married for 13)
We had 3 children, two are now over 18 and one is 10 years old. Parenting arrangements are amicable so no need to have a Parenting plan involved at this stage.
We have both received some independent legal advice and the factors to determine a "fair & equitable" outcome are quite vague regarding non-financial contributions.
We have agreed in principal to a financial settlement that both parties feel is fair. My question is should we be using Consent Orders or a BFA to legalise the agreement?
We have agreed on a split of 60/40 (in her favour) but I worry the court may decide that she is entitled to more and we will have to use a BFA anyway. The asset allocation has been done in a way that helps her and our child (eg - she keeps family home and I pay out her debt, I keep most of my super). Do they sweat on the actual percentage or are they more concerned with an asset allocation that suits both parties?
If a consent order is rejected is the process to appease the registrar fairly straight forward and simply resubmit the application?
Any thoughts much appreciated!!