Hi, my question is if you have a valid property caveat (we loaned money to a family member to help buy a property) can you be sued if you refuse to remove it when the mortgagee attempts to sell it (ie property has been repossessed) ?
We are trying to recover our loan but it looks like there will be little or no money left after the mortgagee has been paid.
Also if we are not forced to remove the caveat how does the situation typically get solved ?
Thanks
We are trying to recover our loan but it looks like there will be little or no money left after the mortgagee has been paid.
Also if we are not forced to remove the caveat how does the situation typically get solved ?
Thanks