I am interested to understand who is responsible in the following situation for identifying a caveat exists on a property being used as security in the name of an individual prior to settlement another property.
A friend, lets say Barry, is estranged from wife. After a number of years of separation and paying rent he decides to purchase an apartment. The holiday home owned and maintained solely by him (but in which she has an interest under pooled assets) is put up as security for the loan. He gets approval, all is set for settlement but on the day of settlement the bank lawyer does not proceed because they then discover there is a caveat on the security property.
Turns out the estranged wife has put it on a year earlier and forgotten about it and Barry was never informed.
Who is responsible? It doesn't look like it is Barry, he can't be expected to even know what a caveat is? It doesn't look like like it is Barry's conveyancer because the problem is really between the ban k and the bank's lawyer, not between Barry and the vendor? What are your thoughts?
A friend, lets say Barry, is estranged from wife. After a number of years of separation and paying rent he decides to purchase an apartment. The holiday home owned and maintained solely by him (but in which she has an interest under pooled assets) is put up as security for the loan. He gets approval, all is set for settlement but on the day of settlement the bank lawyer does not proceed because they then discover there is a caveat on the security property.
Turns out the estranged wife has put it on a year earlier and forgotten about it and Barry was never informed.
Who is responsible? It doesn't look like it is Barry, he can't be expected to even know what a caveat is? It doesn't look like like it is Barry's conveyancer because the problem is really between the ban k and the bank's lawyer, not between Barry and the vendor? What are your thoughts?