I was wondering if anyone could let me know under the Conditions for the Sale of Land when the seller warrants "use of property is lawful", what would this relate? For example if an alfresco area or pergola was unapproved by council, would this mean the use of this part of the property is unlawful?
If so what is the depth of the requirement of the seller under Property Law to complete their due diligence and warrant this? For example, is it sufficient for the real estate agent to just say "to the best of the sellers' knowledge" and this is sufficient for the seller to warrant the use is lawful. (Not sure if this wording is quite 100% correct but hopefully you understand what I am asking)
If so what is the depth of the requirement of the seller under Property Law to complete their due diligence and warrant this? For example, is it sufficient for the real estate agent to just say "to the best of the sellers' knowledge" and this is sufficient for the seller to warrant the use is lawful. (Not sure if this wording is quite 100% correct but hopefully you understand what I am asking)