Hi
My ex has directed me to legislation in the family law act that states:
65DAE No need to consult on issues that are not major long-term
issues
(1) If a child is spending time with a person at a particular time under a
parenting order, the order is taken not to require the person to
consult a person who:
(a) has parental responsibility for the child; or
(b) shares parental responsibility for the child with another
person; about decisions that are made in relation to the child during that
time on issues that are not major-long term issues.
Note: This will mean that the person with whom the child is spending time
will usually not need to consult on decisions about such things as what
the child eats
I understand this, however in our orders he is to advise me of where he is taking child and what they will be doing etc during his time. I read the order myself but then noted this part at the end which says:
(2) Subsection (1) applies subject to any provision to the contrary
made by a parenting order.
Can someone please clarify? Does this mean that the above law does not apply if it's written in consent orders?
Thanks again for clarifying recent issues.
My ex has directed me to legislation in the family law act that states:
65DAE No need to consult on issues that are not major long-term
issues
(1) If a child is spending time with a person at a particular time under a
parenting order, the order is taken not to require the person to
consult a person who:
(a) has parental responsibility for the child; or
(b) shares parental responsibility for the child with another
person; about decisions that are made in relation to the child during that
time on issues that are not major-long term issues.
Note: This will mean that the person with whom the child is spending time
will usually not need to consult on decisions about such things as what
the child eats
I understand this, however in our orders he is to advise me of where he is taking child and what they will be doing etc during his time. I read the order myself but then noted this part at the end which says:
(2) Subsection (1) applies subject to any provision to the contrary
made by a parenting order.
Can someone please clarify? Does this mean that the above law does not apply if it's written in consent orders?
Thanks again for clarifying recent issues.