In meetings with the executor of my late mother's estate, the executor of will has agreed in principal to dividing assets between beneficiaries on the basis of value as opposed to sale of assets and distribution of cash proceeds.
Specifically, he has stated that I have the option of taking the residence, in which I am currently residing. I have not committed to the purchase of another property on this basis, and are therefore exposed to the prospect of forgoing purchasing an appropriate property, and having to purchase or rent an unfavourable property should the option be withdrawn.
I have repeatedly referred to the "agreement" in my emails to the executor but he has not made specific reference in replies himself, although the email trail demonstrates that he has received my emails which explicitly reference the agreement.
My question is, as I have made references in emails to which he has replied, and has not refuted, and as he has minutes of meetings in which he agrees to the above, at what point do I have a legal "contract" or at least have the option of legal recourse in case he reneges on the agreement?
Specifically, he has stated that I have the option of taking the residence, in which I am currently residing. I have not committed to the purchase of another property on this basis, and are therefore exposed to the prospect of forgoing purchasing an appropriate property, and having to purchase or rent an unfavourable property should the option be withdrawn.
I have repeatedly referred to the "agreement" in my emails to the executor but he has not made specific reference in replies himself, although the email trail demonstrates that he has received my emails which explicitly reference the agreement.
My question is, as I have made references in emails to which he has replied, and has not refuted, and as he has minutes of meetings in which he agrees to the above, at what point do I have a legal "contract" or at least have the option of legal recourse in case he reneges on the agreement?
