This is a hypothetical for a fictional story scenario. Being a non lawyer I would appreciate any help with the correct terminology and concepts, or any other useful information to the hypothetical. Thanks in advance!
If a property was acquired through adverse possession (ala the recent Sydney man) is the new title “freehold”?
And, if this property was then sold, would it be possible that the new owner didn’t know that it was formerly acquired by adverse possession?
And if this is a possibility how would it work? (E.g. I’m wondering if it’s possible there’s nothing in the contract of sale that would indicate how the property was acquired, but of course after purchase, this new owner could acquire the title history via Landata and potentially discover the adverse possession history that way?).
If a property was acquired through adverse possession (ala the recent Sydney man) is the new title “freehold”?
And, if this property was then sold, would it be possible that the new owner didn’t know that it was formerly acquired by adverse possession?
And if this is a possibility how would it work? (E.g. I’m wondering if it’s possible there’s nothing in the contract of sale that would indicate how the property was acquired, but of course after purchase, this new owner could acquire the title history via Landata and potentially discover the adverse possession history that way?).
